On the web page I originally asked:
If a term such as e1^ e1 occurs then this can be replaced by a scalar value, this is because e1^ e1 = 1 or 1 depending on how it is defined. There seems to be a contradiction here because by the anticommute rule then we should have e1^ e1 =  e1^ e1 which would only be true if e1=0?
This was kindly answered on the forum as follows:
By: Nobody/Anonymous  nobody 
e1^e1 = e1^e1 
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